Posted by sy (203.127.188.143) on January 07, 2003 at 18:17:35:
Dear Elder Yong,
I read about the Word of God and Spirit of God in a recent Presbyterian publication and I have some questions about it.
It says that Jesus’ preaching was totally ‘God’s Word’, manifesting God as the infinite and unlimited one. But when the Holy Spirit moved a person, he would not be able to receive the Word entirely as he is limited by nature and it follows that it is impossible for him to preach purely the Word of God.
I am trying to understand this in the context of how the authors of the Bible had received the inspiration from the Holy Spirit. Were they in a different state where they received the Word directly and in totality from the Holy Spirit and were able to translate it entirely into writing, without being constrained at all by the finite nature of man ? It has to be so, right ?
Would appreciate your advice a great deal. Thanks.
sy